Germaine Greer once commented that "the frequently celebrated female intuition.... Is after all only a facility for observing tiny insight, aspects of behaviour and forming an empirical conclusion which cannot be syllogistically examined."? In an attempt to understand way is commonly called intuition, is it best to think of it as an invalid cognitive process or as perhaps as some say an irrational or unmediated awareness of phenomenon.
            
             First in order to understand what Greer meant by female intuition we have to examine intuition itself. Intuition as it is written in the Theory of Knowledge text book, is a form of knowledge by acquaintance or an "immediate apprehension without the intervention of reason or direct immediate insights" The oxford dictionary defines intuition as " the power of understanding situations, peoples feelings immediately without the need for conscious reasoning or study."
            
             Both of these definitions do not agree with what Greer says because he suggests that intuition is a facility for observing tiny insight, aspects of behaviour and forming an empirical conclusion. If the above definitions are considered then intuition has nothing to do with empirical conclusions, as empirical knowledge is based on senses, touch, taste, sound, smell and sight. Intuition is not based on any of those, it is an unconscious understanding or knowledge of something, you don't have to use logic and reasoning you just know what you know. In such a case where intuition does not require a conscious effort then it is true that it is an irrational or unmediated awareness of a phenomenon. This is because the intuitive mind does not need to think logically and take all the facts into account; it doesn't have to question anything. The intuitive mind can posses knowledge without needing an explanation and wanting to go through everything rationally.
            
             This can often become a problem when people star...