Socrates' Search for a Definition
In this paper I will first show why Socrates thinks Euthyphro can explain the essence of piety. I will explain why it is important for Socrates to have a definition of piety. Then the paper will go into why it is not enough to just know an affect or quality of pious actions. I will construct my argument on Socrates' own statements about his lack of knowledge in regard to piety. Through that argument I will conclude on why I believe Socrates' demand for a definition is legitimate. The reason Socrates wants Euthyphro to give a definition of piety is because Euthyphro claims to have absolute knowledge of what piety is and what it is to be pious. "I should be of no use, Socrates, and Euthyphro would not be superior to the majority of men, if I did not have accurate knowledge of all things" (5a). In this passage stated by Euthyphro he claims to be an authority figure in the case of what piety is and what it is to be pious. Socrates admits that he has no absolute knowledge of piety, and asks Euthyphro to enlighten him on the subject (5d). Through elenchus Socrates wants to break down Euthyphro's claim of absolute knowledge. Socrates does this to prove to Euthyphro that if you claim to have full kn
By insisting Euthyphro give a definition Socrates feels that it will help him to gain knowledge of piety. Even though Socrates claims to have no knowledge of piety, I still feel he has a legitimate demand for wanting Euthyphro to supply him with a definition. I feel that the reason the question of piety never gets answered is because there is no one universal definition of piety. I feel that Socrates' demand for a definition of piety is legitimate. "I say that the pious is to do what I am doing now, to prosecute the wrongdoer, be it about murder or temple robbery or anything else, whether the wrongdoer is your father or your mother or anyone else; not to prosecute is impious" (5e). By only giving an affect or quality it gives the sufficient reasoning but it fails to provide the necessity element of the definition. The reason Socrates can refute all of the definitions given by Euthyphro is because he does have knowledge and he just wants to test his own knowledge against that of Euthyphro's supposed absolute knowledge. "If you had no clear knowledge of piety and impiety you would never have ventured to prosecute your old father for murder on behalf of a servant, for fear of the gods you would have been afraid to take the risk lest you should not be acting rightly, and would have been ashamed before men, but now I well that you believe you have clear knowledge of piety and impiety. It is just a regurgitation of information. At the end of Plato's Euthyphro, Socrates asks Euthyphro one final time for a definition, and Euthyphro's final answer proves why Socrates has legitimate reasons for his demands. So tell me, my good Euthyphro, and do not hide what you think it is," then Euthyphro gives his final reply, "Some other time, Socrates for I am in a hurry now, and it is time for me to go" (15d-e). Without the knowledge of a true definition it makes Euthyphro's reasons for prosecuting his father weak. I feel that all the different definitions given by Euthyphro share certain properties of an affect or quality, but it does not explain the nature of the actions as pious. A list of examples does not give Socrates a standard that he can go by when deciding whether something is pious or not.
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