In biological terms men really don't have a physical way to show or define their virginity, but in women the presence of a hymen is the clear indicator of virginity. However, there are some women who are born without a hymen, and there are others who are born with a thin hymen that can rupture through a variety of activities totally unrelated to sex, such as inserting a tampon. If these women don't have hymens can they still be considered virgins?
             Webster's dictionary defines virginity as, "a person who has never had sexual intercourse." (Webster's Dictionary, Nichols Publishing Group, 1999. pg. 747) Older generations, such as my grandparents, define virginity as someone that has never been kissed or touched in any way, shape, or form sexually. However, in my opinion, virginity is innocence. Meaning someone that has not willingly participated in any sexual act(s). Only someone who has never been exposed to sexual contacts or acts should be considered a virgin. Anal and oral sex, in my opinion, are methods of losing your virginity.
             For example, I know a girl who swears that she is still a virgin, but every guy that knows her knows that she freely gives oral sex. In Webster's context she could still be considered a virgin, because she has not engaged in sexual intercourse. However, in my context she is not considered a virgin, because she has engaged in sexual acts.
             Yet, there is another factor of virginity that must be dealt with. If a woman or a man has been raped or molested, she or he did not willingly engage in intercourse. I strongly feel that these people should be considered virgins until they feel they can give their virginity (innocence) to someone.
             Something else to consider is homosexuality. For instance if two women have sex, can they still categorize themselves as virgins since they didn't have intercourse. Under Webster's and bi
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