How accurate is Hamlet's self assessment in the soliloquy of Act II, scene ii?
             The soliloquy of Hamlet that closes Act II enables the audience to truly bear witness to how he currently perceives himself, rather than making assumptions based on his "antic disposition" (I.v.180). Within the opening lines of the speech Hamlet refers to himself as a "rogue and peasant slave" (II.ii.44) This phrase has both an undertone and overtone. The fact that he deems himself the equivalent of a "peasant" conveys not only Hamlet's feelings of inadequacy, but only his embarrassment at the latter. He is of noble blood and is not only disappointing himself, but feels that he is falling short of the integrity of his station. Hamlet is not only disgraced by his inaction as a son, but as the Prince of Denmark, for he is "subject to his birth" (I.ii.18). The term "slave" could be referring to Hamlet's feelings of helplessness as he is obliged to the will of the ghost. Prior to when the commandment of the ghost is given, he feels in advance his limitations and scantiness. When in his first soliloquy he contrasts his uncle with his father, he adds
             Than I to Hercules,"
             hence opposing himself to the doer of great deeds and implicitly to the father he would emulate.
             He has sworn to the ghost that he will kill Claudius, but thus far, has done little beyond entertaining the idea theoretically. Upon the ghost revealing the murder of his father, Hamlet mentioned his "prophetic soul" (I.v.49). This indicates that Hamlet 's intuition had led him to suspect that his uncle had assassinated his father. If this is the case, then the harsh words of Hamlet are some what legitimate.
             The primary function of the speech delivered by the 1st Player is to provide a link to Hamlets attempt at subterfuge to trap the King. However, it also serves as a basis of contrast b...